NEET Full-Length Mock Test 13

NEET Mock Test - 2026

Test 13

Number Of Questions: 180

Time: 3 hours

Correct answer Carries: 4.

Wrong Answer Carries: -1.

3:00:00

Physics

What ensures that the laws of reflection hold true when derived using the wave model?

The wave model uses secondary wavelets, where the reflected wavefront’s envelope forms when the incident and reflected angles are equal, satisfying geometric congruence.

Frequency matching
Amplitude variation
Wavelength adjustment
Equal angles of incidence and reflection
4

Which of the following statements is correct about the absorption process in a hydrogen atom?

Absorption occurs when an electron jumps to a higher energy level by absorbing a photon matching the energy difference between levels.

Photon is emitted during absorption
Electron remains in the same orbit
Continuous energy is absorbed
Electron jumps to a higher energy level
4

A bar magnet with original \( m = 2.8 \, \text{A m}^2 \) is cut transversely into two equal parts. What is \( m \) of each part?

When cut transversely, each part has half the original magnetic moment.

Given: \( m = 2.8 \, \text{A m}^2 \).

Each part: \( m' = \frac{2.8}{2} = 1.4 \, \text{A m}^2 \).

1.2 A m²
1.3 A m²
1.35 A m²
1.4 A m²
4

A ball is thrown upwards at \( 20 \, \text{m/s} \) from a \( 50 \, \text{m} \) tower. What is its speed when it passes \( 20 \, \text{m} \) below the tower’s top? (Take \( g = 10 \, \text{m/s}^2 \))

Displacement \( y = -20 \, \text{m} \), \( v^2 = (20)^2 + 2 \cdot 10 \cdot 20 = 400 + 400 = 800 \).

\( v = \sqrt{800} \approx 28.28 \, \text{m/s} \).

25 m/s
30 m/s
27 m/s
28.28 m/s
4

An aluminium block of dimensions \( 0.5 \, \text{m} \times 0.3 \, \text{m} \times 0.1 \, \text{m} \) is subjected to a shearing force of \( 7 \times 10^4 \, \text{N} \). If the shear modulus of aluminium is \( 2.5 \times 10^{10} \, \text{N/m}^2 \), what is the displacement of the top face?

Shear modulus: \( G = \frac{F / A}{\Delta x / L} \).

Rearrange: \( \Delta x = \frac{F L}{A G} \).

Area: \( A = 0.5 \times 0.3 = 0.15 \, \text{m}^2 \), \( L = 0.1 \, \text{m} \).

Substitute: \( \Delta x = \frac{7 \times 10^4 \times 0.1}{0.15 \times 2.5 \times 10^{10}} = \frac{7000}{3.75 \times 10^9} \approx 1.87 \times 10^{-6} \, \text{m} \).

\( 1.5 \times 10^{-6} \, \text{m} \)
\( 2 \times 10^{-6} \, \text{m} \)
\( 1.8 \times 10^{-6} \, \text{m} \)
\( 1.87 \times 10^{-6} \, \text{m} \)
4

A \( 0.25 \, \text{kg} \) ball moving at \( 18 \, \text{m/s} \) at \( 53^\circ \) to a wall rebounds at the same speed and angle. What is the impulse perpendicular to the wall? (Take \( \sin 53^\circ = 0.8 \), \( \cos 53^\circ = 0.6 \))

Perpendicular component (x-axis) reverses upon rebound.

Initial: \( p_{x1} = m v \cos 53^\circ = 0.25 \times 18 \times 0.6 = 2.7 \, \text{kg m/s} \).

Final: \( p_{x2} = -m v \cos 53^\circ = -0.25 \times 18 \times 0.6 = -2.7 \, \text{kg m/s} \).

Impulse: \( \Delta p_x = -2.7 - 2.7 = -5.4 \, \text{N s} \).

Magnitude: \( |\Delta p_x| = 5.4 \, \text{N s} \).

4 N s
5.4 N s
6.5 N s
8 N s
2

A stationary wave on a string fixed at both ends has a frequency of 150 Hz and a wave speed of 45 m/s. What is the wavelength?

Wavelength: \( \lambda = \frac{v}{v} = \frac{45}{150} = 0.3 \, \text{m} \).

0.2 m
0.25 m
0.35 m
0.3 m
4

A \( 10 \, \Omega \) resistor dissipates \( 40 \, \text{W} \) of power. What is the voltage across it?

Power: \( P = \frac{V^2}{R} \).

Rearrange: \( V = \sqrt{P R} \).

Substitute: \( V = \sqrt{40 \times 10} = \sqrt{400} = 20 \, \text{V} \).

\( 20 \, \text{V} \)
\( 22 \, \text{V} \)
\( 25 \, \text{V} \)
\( 30 \, \text{V} \)
1

Check the dimensional consistency of \( P = \frac{F^2}{m v} \), where \( P \) is power, \( F \) is force, \( m \) is mass, and \( v \) is velocity.

LHS: \( [P] = [M L^2 T^{-3}] \).

RHS: \( [F^2 / m v] = [M L T^{-2}]^2 / [M] [L T^{-1}] = [M^2 L^2 T^{-4}] / [M L T^{-1}] = [M L T^{-3}] \).

Consistent.

Inconsistent
Partially consistent
Cannot determine
Consistent
4

In the SI system, which base quantity’s unit is defined using the speed of light in vacuum?

The metre, the SI unit of length, is defined by fixing the speed of light in vacuum as a constant value, expressed in metres per second, using the second as the time unit.

Length
Time
Mass
Electric current
1

At what temperature is the rms speed of helium molecules 1500 m/s? (Atomic mass of He = 4 u, \(k_B = 1.38 \times 10^{-23} \, \text{J K}^{-1}\))

\(v_{\text{rms}} = \sqrt{\frac{3k_B T}{m}}\), \(m = \frac{4 \times 10^{-3}}{6.02 \times 10^{23}} = 6.64 \times 10^{-27} \, \text{kg}\).

\(1500^2 = \frac{3 \times 1.38 \times 10^{-23} \times T}{6.64 \times 10^{-27}}\), \(T = \frac{2.25 \times 10^6 \times 6.64 \times 10^{-27}}{4.14 \times 10^{-23}} \approx 361 \, \text{K}\).

300 K
361 K
450 K
600 K
2

A \( 2000 \, \text{kg} \) rocket accelerates upward at \( 4 \, \text{m/s}^2 \). What is the thrust? (Take \( g = 10 \, \text{m/s}^2 \))

Net force: \( T - mg = ma \).

Substitute: \( T - 2000 \times 10 = 2000 \times 4 \).

\( T - 20000 = 8000 \).

\( T = 20000 + 8000 = 28000 \, \text{N} \).

24000 N
28000 N
32000 N
36000 N
2

A coil of self-inductance 0.8 H has its current decreased from 6 A to 3 A in 0.2 s. What is the magnitude of the induced emf?

\( \varepsilon = L \frac{\Delta I}{\Delta t} \).

\( \Delta I = 3 - 6 = -3 \, \text{A} \), \( \Delta t = 0.2 \, \text{s} \).

\( \varepsilon = 0.8 \times \frac{-3}{0.2} = 0.8 \times (-15) = -12 \, \text{V} \), magnitude = 12 V.

10 V
12 V
14 V
16 V
2

In a purely inductive AC circuit, the current lags the voltage by what phase angle?

For a pure inductor, \( i = i_m \sin (\omega t - \frac{\pi}{2}) \), while \( v = v_m \sin \omega t \).

Phase difference: \( \phi = -\frac{\pi}{2} \), meaning current lags voltage by \( \frac{\pi}{2} \) or \( 90^\circ \).

0°
45°
90°
180°
3

What is the escape speed from a planet with mass \( 3 \times 10^{24} \, \text{kg} \) and radius \( 4 \times 10^6 \, \text{m} \)? (\( G = 6.67 \times 10^{-11} \, \text{N m}^2/\text{kg}^2 \))

\( v_e = \sqrt{\frac{2 G M}{R}} \).

\( v_e = \sqrt{\frac{2 \times 6.67 \times 10^{-11} \times 3 \times 10^{24}}{4 \times 10^6}} \).

\( v_e = \sqrt{\frac{4.002 \times 10^{14}}{4 \times 10^6}} = \sqrt{1.001 \times 10^8} \).

\( v_e \approx 1.0 \times 10^4 \, \text{m/s} = 10 \, \text{km/s} \).

8 km/s
10 km/s
12 km/s
14 km/s
2

A coil of self-inductance 1.0 H has its current decreased from 5 A to 2 A in 0.15 s. What is the magnitude of the induced emf?

\( \varepsilon = L \frac{\Delta I}{\Delta t} \).

\( \Delta I = 2 - 5 = -3 \, \text{A} \), \( \Delta t = 0.15 \, \text{s} \).

\( \varepsilon = 1.0 \times \frac{-3}{0.15} = 1.0 \times (-20) = -20 \, \text{V} \), magnitude = 20 V.

15 V
20 V
25 V
30 V
2

A \( 4 \, \text{kg} \) mass rotates in a circle of radius \( 0.25 \, \text{m} \) with a linear speed of \( 2 \, \text{m/s} \). What is its angular momentum about the center?

\( L = m v r \).

\( m = 4 \, \text{kg} \), \( v = 2 \, \text{m/s} \), \( r = 0.25 \, \text{m} \).

\( L = 4 \times 2 \times 0.25 = 2 \, \text{kg m}^2/\text{s} \).

1.5 kg m²/s
2 kg m²/s
2.5 kg m²/s
3 kg m²/s
2

What is the energy equivalent of a neutron with mass \( 1.6749 \times 10^{-27} \, \text{kg} \) in Joules? (Given \( c = 3 \times 10^8 \, \text{m/s} \))

\( E = m c^2 \).

\( m = 1.6749 \times 10^{-27} \, \text{kg} \), \( c^2 = (3 \times 10^8)^2 = 9 \times 10^{16} \, \text{m}^2/\text{s}^2 \).

\( E = 1.6749 \times 10^{-27} \times 9 \times 10^{16} \approx 1.507 \times 10^{-10} \, \text{J} \).

1.507 × 10⁻¹⁰ J
1.674 × 10⁻¹⁰ J
1.800 × 10⁻¹⁰ J
2.000 × 10⁻¹⁰ J
1

A car moving at \( 50 \, \text{m/s} \) decelerates uniformly to rest over \( 125 \, \text{m} \). What is the time taken to stop?

Use \( v^2 = v_0^2 + 2 a x \) to find \( a \): \( 0 = (50)^2 + 2 a (125) \Rightarrow 0 = 2500 + 250 a \Rightarrow a = -10 \, \text{m/s}^2 \).

Then, \( v = v_0 + a t \): \( 0 = 50 - 10 t \Rightarrow t = 5 \, \text{s} \).

The time taken is \( 5 \, \text{s} \).

4 s
6 s
7 s
5 s
4

In projectile motion, what is the effect of launching at complementary angles (e.g., 30° and 60°) on the range?

For complementary angles (\( \theta \) and \( 90^\circ - \theta \)), \( \sin 2\theta = \sin (180^\circ - 2\theta) \), so \( R = \frac{v_0^2 \sin 2\theta}{g} \) is the same (e.g., \( \sin 60^\circ = \sin 120^\circ \)). Thus, the range remains the same for complementary angles.

Range increases
Range decreases
Range becomes zero
Range remains the same
4

The work function of a metal is \( 3.0 \, \text{eV} \). Light of frequency \( 8.0 \times 10^{14} \, \text{Hz} \) is incident on it. What is the stopping potential? (Take \( h = 6.63 \times 10^{-34} \, \text{J s} \), \( e = 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \, \text{C} \))

\( E = h v = 6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 8.0 \times 10^{14} = 5.304 \times 10^{-19} \, \text{J} \).

\( E = \frac{5.304 \times 10^{-19}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}} \approx 3.315 \, \text{eV} \).

\( K_{\max} = E - \phi_0 = 3.315 - 3.0 = 0.315 \, \text{eV} \).

\( V_0 = \frac{K_{\max}}{e} = 0.315 \, \text{V} \).

0.2 V
0.25 V
0.3 V
0.315 V
4

Which factor does not affect the magnetic field produced by a current element according to the Biot-Savart law?

The Biot-Savart law states \( d\mathbf{B} \propto \frac{I d\mathbf{l} \times \mathbf{r}}{r^3} \). The field depends on current, length of the element, distance, and angle, but not on the mass of the conductor.

Current in the element
Mass of the conductor
Distance from the element
Angle between current and position vector
2

A copper wire carries \( 2.72 \, \text{A} \) with a drift speed of \( 8 \times 10^{-5} \, \text{m/s} \). If \( n = 8.5 \times 10^{28} \, \text{m}^{-3} \) and \( e = 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \, \text{C} \), what is the cross-sectional area?

Drift speed: \( v_d = \frac{I}{n e A} \).

Rearrange: \( A = \frac{I}{n e v_d} \).

Substitute: \( A = \frac{2.72}{8.5 \times 10^{28} \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 8 \times 10^{-5}} \).

Calculate: \( A = \frac{2.72}{1.088 \times 10^5} \approx 2.5 \times 10^{-5} \, \text{m}^2 \).

\( 2.2 \times 10^{-5} \, \text{m}^2 \)
\( 2.4 \times 10^{-5} \, \text{m}^2 \)
\( 2.45 \times 10^{-5} \, \text{m}^2 \)
\( 2.5 \times 10^{-5} \, \text{m}^2 \)
4

A mercury barometer shows a height of \( 75 \, \text{cm} \) at sea level. What is the atmospheric pressure? (\( \rho = 13.6 \times 10^3 \, \text{kg/m}^3 \), \( g = 10 \, \text{m/s}^2 \))

\( P_a = \rho g h \).

\( \rho = 13.6 \times 10^3 \, \text{kg/m}^3 \), \( g = 10 \, \text{m/s}^2 \), \( h = 0.75 \, \text{m} \).

\( P_a = 13.6 \times 10^3 \times 10 \times 0.75 = 1.02 \times 10^5 \, \text{Pa} \).

0.76 × 10⁵ Pa
1.02 × 10⁵ Pa
1.36 × 10⁵ Pa
1.52 × 10⁵ Pa
2

What causes the elliptical shape of planetary orbits according to Newton’s theory?

The inverse-square law (\( F \propto 1/r^2 \)) leads to elliptical orbits as a general solution to the two-body problem, matching Kepler’s first law, unlike a linear force which would produce circular orbits.

Linear gravitational force
Inverse-square gravitational force
Planetary rotation
Solar wind pressure
2

What determines the intensity of light in the wave picture?

In the wave picture, intensity is proportional to the square of the amplitude of the wave.

Frequency
Wavelength
Speed
Square of the amplitude
4

A dipole \( p = 8 \times 10^{-10} \, \text{C m} \) is rotated from \( \theta = 0^\circ \) to \( 90^\circ \) in a field \( E = 10^6 \, \text{N/C} \). What is the work done?

Work done: \( W = p E (\cos \theta_0 - \cos \theta_1) = 8 \times 10^{-10} \times 10^6 \times (\cos 0^\circ - \cos 90^\circ) = 8 \times 10^{-4} \times (1 - 0) = 8 \times 10^{-4} \, \text{J} \).

6 × 10⁻⁴ J
7 × 10⁻⁴ J
9 × 10⁻⁴ J
8 × 10⁻⁴ J
4

A material has \( B = 0.42 \, \text{T} \) and \( M = 3.0 \times 10^5 \, \text{A m}^{-1} \). What is \( H \)? (Take \( \mu_0 = 4\pi \times 10^{-7} \, \text{T m A}^{-1} \)).

\( B = \mu_0 (H + M) \), so \( H = \frac{B}{\mu_0} - M \).

Given: \( B = 0.42 \, \text{T} \), \( M = 3.0 \times 10^5 \, \text{A m}^{-1} \), \( \mu_0 = 4\pi \times 10^{-7} \).

\( \frac{B}{\mu_0} = \frac{0.42}{4\pi \times 10^{-7}} \approx 3.338 \times 10^5 \, \text{A m}^{-1} \).

\( H = 3.338 \times 10^5 - 3.0 \times 10^5 = 3.38 \times 10^4 \, \text{A m}^{-1} \).

3.2 × 10⁴ A m⁻¹
3.38 × 10⁴ A m⁻¹
3.5 × 10⁴ A m⁻¹
3.6 × 10⁴ A m⁻¹
2

In a concave lens, what is the effect on the image if the object is moved closer to the lens from a distant position?

For a concave lens, the image is always virtual, erect, and diminished. As the object moves closer, the image size increases (though still smaller than the object), and the image moves closer to the lens, but remains on the same side as the object.

Image becomes real and inverted
Image size increases but remains diminished
Image size decreases further
Image moves to the opposite side
2

A monatomic gas undergoes an adiabatic expansion from \( 700 \, \text{K} \) to \( 350 \, \text{K} \) with \( 2 \, \text{moles} \). What is the work done? (\( R = 8.3 \, \text{J mol}^{-1} \text{K}^{-1} \), \( \gamma = 1.67 \))

\( W = \frac{\mu R (T_1 - T_2)}{\gamma - 1} \).

\( \mu = 2 \), \( R = 8.3 \), \( T_1 = 700 \), \( T_2 = 350 \), \( \gamma = 1.67 \).

\( W = \frac{2 \times 8.3 \times (700 - 350)}{1.67 - 1} = \frac{16.6 \times 350}{0.67} \approx 8671.6 \, \text{J} \approx 8672 \, \text{J} \).

8000 J
8672 J
9000 J
9500 J
2

In an n-type semiconductor, the minority carriers are:

In an n-type semiconductor, electrons are majority carriers due to pentavalent doping, while holes, generated intrinsically or reduced by recombination, are minority carriers.

Electrons
Holes
Positive ions
Negative ions
2

A concave mirror of focal length \( 15 \, \text{cm} \) forms an image at \( 30 \, \text{cm} \) from the mirror. What is the object distance?

Focal length: \( f = -15 \, \text{cm} \) (concave mirror).

Image distance: \( v = -30 \, \text{cm} \) (real image, same side as object).

Mirror equation: \( \frac{1}{v} + \frac{1}{u} = \frac{1}{f} \).

\( \frac{1}{-30} + \frac{1}{u} = \frac{1}{-15} \Rightarrow \frac{1}{u} = \frac{1}{-15} + \frac{1}{30} = \frac{-2 + 1}{30} = \frac{-1}{30} \).

\( u = -30 \, \text{cm} \).

30 cm
20 cm
15 cm
10 cm
1

A circular loop of radius \( 0.2 \, \text{m} \) with 10 turns carries \( 1.5 \, \text{A} \). What is the magnetic field at its center? (\( \mu_0 = 4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \, \text{T m/A} \))

Magnetic field \( B = \frac{\mu_0 N I}{2 R} \).

\( B = \frac{4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \times 10 \times 1.5}{2 \times 0.2} = \frac{6 \pi \times 10^{-6}}{0.4} = 1.5 \pi \times 10^{-5} \approx 4.71 \times 10^{-5} \, \text{T} \).

2.36 × 10⁻⁵ T
4.71 × 10⁻⁵ T
7.85 × 10⁻⁵ T
9.42 × 10⁻⁵ T
2

Two capacitors \( 10 \, \mu\text{F} \) and \( 20 \, \mu\text{F} \) are in parallel. What is the total capacitance?

\( C = C_1 + C_2 = 10 + 20 = 30 \, \mu\text{F} \).

25 µF
30 µF
35 µF
40 µF
2

A system of two particles, \( 3 \, \text{kg} \) at \( (1, 2) \) and \( 1 \, \text{kg} \) at \( (5, 6) \), moves as a rigid body. What is the distance of the center of mass from the origin?

\( X = \frac{(3 \times 1) + (1 \times 5)}{3 + 1} = \frac{3 + 5}{4} = 2 \).

\( Y = \frac{(3 \times 2) + (1 \times 6)}{3 + 1} = \frac{6 + 6}{4} = 3 \).

Distance = \( \sqrt{X^2 + Y^2} = \sqrt{2^2 + 3^2} = \sqrt{4 + 9} = \sqrt{13} \approx 3.6 \, \text{m} \).

3.2 m
3.6 m
4.0 m
4.5 m
2

A spring-mass system has \( m = 0.6 \, \text{kg}, k = 240 \, \text{N/m} \). If displaced by \( 7 \, \text{cm} \), what is the total energy?

Total energy: \( E = \frac{1}{2} k A^2 \).

\( A = 0.07 \, \text{m}, k = 240 \, \text{N/m} \).

\( E = 0.5 \times 240 \times (0.07)^2 = 0.5 \times 240 \times 0.0049 = 0.588 \, \text{J} \).

0.4 J
0.5 J
0.588 J
0.7 J
3

What is the primary source of charge carriers in an intrinsic semiconductor at room temperature?

In an intrinsic semiconductor, charge carriers (electrons and holes) are generated by thermal excitation at temperatures above 0 K, breaking covalent bonds and creating electron-hole pairs.

Thermal excitation
Doping impurities
External electric field
Light absorption
1

Which of the following is an elemental semiconductor?

Elemental semiconductors are pure elements like Si and Ge, while compound semiconductors (e.g., GaAs, CdS) consist of multiple elements. Among the options, Ge is elemental.

GaAs
Ge
CdS
InP
2

Why does steam at \( 100^\circ \text{C} \) cause more severe burns than water at \( 100^\circ \text{C} \)?

Steam releases additional latent heat of vaporization when it condenses on skin, transferring more energy than liquid water at the same temperature.

Steam has higher pressure
Water cools faster
Steam has lower density
Steam releases latent heat on condensing
4

In a circuit with resistors in parallel, what happens to the voltage across each resistor?

In a parallel configuration, all resistors share the same two nodes, so the potential difference (voltage) across each is equal to the source voltage, per Kirchhoff’s loop rule applied to each branch.

It doubles
It halves
It remains the same across all
It varies inversely with resistance
3

What does the Ampere-Maxwell law relate in Maxwell's equations?

The Ampere-Maxwell law relates the magnetic field to both the conduction current and the displacement current, given by \( \oint \mathbf{B} \cdot \mathrm{d} \mathbf{l} = \mu_0 i_c + \mu_0 \varepsilon_0 \frac{d \Phi_E}{dt} \).

Magnetic field to conduction and displacement currents
Electric field to magnetic flux
Magnetic field to charge
Electric field to conduction current only
1

A thin spherical shell of radius 24 cm has a charge of \( 16 \, \mu\text{C} \). What is the electric field at a point 30 cm from the center?

Outside shell (\( r > R \)): \( E = \frac{k q}{r^2} \).

\( k = 9 \times 10^9 \, \text{Nm}^2/\text{C}^2 \), \( q = 16 \times 10^{-6} \, \text{C} \), \( r = 0.3 \, \text{m} \).

\( E = 9 \times 10^9 \times \frac{16 \times 10^{-6}}{(0.3)^2} = 9 \times 10^9 \times \frac{16 \times 10^{-6}}{0.09} = 1.6 \times 10^6 \, \text{N/C} \).

\( 1.6 \times 10^6 \, \text{N/C} \)
\( 1.7 \times 10^6 \, \text{N/C} \)
\( 1.8 \times 10^6 \, \text{N/C} \)
\( 1.9 \times 10^6 \, \text{N/C} \)
1

What does the photoelectric effect demonstrate about the nature of light?

The photoelectric effect shows that light behaves as discrete packets of energy (photons), supporting its particle nature.

Particle nature
Wave nature
Electromagnetic nature
Continuous nature
1

A neutron (\( 1 \, \text{u} \)) at \( 6 \times 10^6 \, \text{m/s} \) collides elastically with a deuterium (\( 2 \, \text{u} \)). What fraction of its kinetic energy is transferred?

Fraction transferred \( f_2 = \frac{4 m_1 m_2}{(m_1 + m_2)^2} = \frac{4 \times 1 \times 2}{(1 + 2)^2} = \frac{8}{9} \approx 0.889 \).

0.85
0.89
0.92
0.95
2

A force \( \mathbf{F} = -5\hat{\mathbf{i}} + 2\hat{\mathbf{j}} \, \text{N} \) acts on a particle moving along \( \mathbf{d} = 3\hat{\mathbf{i}} + 4\hat{\mathbf{j}} \, \text{m} \). What is the work done?

Work \( W = \mathbf{F} \cdot \mathbf{d} \).

\( \mathbf{F} = -5\hat{\mathbf{i}} + 2\hat{\mathbf{j}} \), \( \mathbf{d} = 3\hat{\mathbf{i}} + 4\hat{\mathbf{j}} \).

Scalar product: \( W = (-5 \times 3) + (2 \times 4) = -15 + 8 = -7 \, \text{J} \).

-9 J
-7 J
-5 J
-3 J
2

Chemistry

In the reaction \( \ce{4NH3 + 5O2 -> 4NO + 6H2O} \), how many grams of NO are produced from 8 g of O₂? (Atomic masses: N = 14, H = 1, O = 16)

Moles of O₂ = 8 / 32 = 0.25 mol.

5 mol O₂ produce 4 mol NO. Moles of NO = (4 / 5) × 0.25 = 0.2 mol.

Molar mass of NO = 30 g/mol. Mass = 0.2 × 30 = 6 g.

4 g
5 g
5.5 g
6 g
4

Which molecule is paramagnetic due to unpaired electrons in its molecular orbitals?

\( \ce{O2} \) has 2 unpaired electrons in its \( \pi^* 2p \) orbitals, making it paramagnetic.

\( \ce{N2} \)
\( \ce{F2} \)
\( \ce{O2} \)
\( \ce{CO} \)
3

The \( K_{sp} \) of \( \ce{BaCrO4} \) is \( 1.2 \times 10^{-10} \). What is its solubility in 0.01 M \( \ce{Na2CrO4} \)?

\( K_{sp} = [\ce{Ba^2+}][\ce{CrO4^2-}] \), \( [\ce{CrO4^2-}] = 0.01 \), \( 1.2 \times 10^{-10} = S \cdot 0.01 \).

\( S = 1.2 \times 10^{-8} \) M.

\( 3.5 \times 10^{-5} \) M
\( 1.2 \times 10^{-10} \) M
\( 6.0 \times 10^{-6} \) M
\( 1.2 \times 10^{-8} \) M
4

Which reaction involves a non-metal displacing another non-metal in a redox process?

In \( \ce{Cl2 + 2KBr -> 2KCl + Br2} \), Cl (0 to -1) displaces Br (-1 to 0), a redox displacement.

\( \ce{2Na + Cl2 -> 2NaCl} \)
\( \ce{Fe + CuSO4 -> FeSO4 + Cu} \)
\( \ce{Cl2 + 2KBr -> 2KCl + Br2} \)
\( \ce{Mg + O2 -> MgO} \)
3

Which reagent is used for the selective reduction of aldehydes to alcohols?

Sodium borohydride (\(\ce{NaBH4}\)) is a mild reducing agent that selectively reduces aldehydes to primary alcohols.

KMnO4
NaBH4
LiAlH4
Tollens' reagent
2

Which of the following transition metals is used as a catalyst in the Haber process?

Iron (Fe) is used as a catalyst in the Haber process for ammonia synthesis (\( \ce{N2 + 3H2 -> 2NH3} \)).

Ni
Cu
Fe
Zn
3

Which of the following 3d series elements has the lowest enthalpy of atomization?

Zinc (Zn, Z = 30) has the lowest enthalpy of atomization (126 kJ/mol) due to its filled \( 3d^{10} \) configuration.

Fe
Cu
Zn
Ni
3

What volume of 1.5 M HCl is required to react completely with 10 g of CaCO₃? (Molar mass of CaCO₃ = 100 g/mol)

Reaction: CaCO₃ + 2HCl → CaCl₂ + CO₂ + H₂O.

Moles of CaCO₃ = 10 / 100 = 0.1 mol.

Moles of HCl = 0.1 × 2 = 0.2 mol.

Volume = 0.2 / 1.5 = 0.1333 L = 133.3 mL ≈ 133 mL.

100 mL
133 mL
150 mL
200 mL
2

What is the molarity of a solution prepared by dissolving 4 g of NaOH in 500 mL of solution? (Molar mass: \( \ce{NaOH} = 40 \, \text{g/mol} \))

Moles of NaOH = \( \frac{4}{40} = 0.1 \, \text{mol} \).

Volume in liters = \( \frac{500}{1000} = 0.5 \, \text{L} \).

Molarity = \( \frac{0.1}{0.5} = 0.2 \, \text{M} \).

0.2 M
0.4 M
0.1 M
0.5 M
1

The solubility of \( \ce{PbCl2} \) in water is \( 1.0 \times 10^{-2} \) M. What is its \( K_{sp} \)?

\( \ce{PbCl2(s) <=> Pb^2+ + 2Cl-} \), \( [\ce{Pb^2+}] = S \), \( [\ce{Cl-}] = 2S \).

\( K_{sp} = [\ce{Pb^2+}][\ce{Cl-}]^2 = S \cdot (2S)^2 = 4S^3 = 4 (1.0 \times 10^{-2})^3 = 4 \times 10^{-6} \).

\( 1.0 \times 10^{-4} \)
\( 2.0 \times 10^{-5} \)
\( 8.0 \times 10^{-6} \)
\( 4.0 \times 10^{-6} \)
4

What is the entropy change when a solid sublimes to a gas?

Sublimation increases disorder (solid to gas), so \(\Delta S > 0\).

Decreases
Zero
Increases
Depends on temperature
3

What volume of 0.1 M H₂SO₄ is required to react with 4 g of NaOH? (Molar mass of NaOH = 40 g/mol)

Reaction: \( \ce{H2SO4 + 2NaOH -> Na2SO4 + 2H2O} \).

Moles of NaOH = 4 / 40 = 0.1 mol.

2 mol NaOH require 1 mol H₂SO₄. Moles of H₂SO₄ = 0.1 / 2 = 0.05 mol.

Volume = 0.05 / 0.1 = 0.5 L = 500 mL.

200 mL
300 mL
400 mL
500 mL
4

Which compound reacts with 2,4-DNP reagent to give an orange precipitate?

2,4-DNP reacts with carbonyl compounds such as aldehydes and ketones, forming an orange precipitate. Acetone, being a ketone, gives this reaction.

Methanol
Acetone
Ethanoic acid
Ethanol
2

What is the formula of tetraamminediaquacobalt(III) chloride?

Co³⁺ with 4 \( \ce{NH3} \) and 2 \( \ce{H2O} \) (neutral) forms \( \ce{[Co(NH3)4(H2O)2]^{3+}} \), balanced by 3 \( \ce{Cl^-} \), giving \( \ce{[Co(NH3)4(H2O)2]Cl3} \).

\( \ce{[Co(NH3)4(H2O)2]Cl2} \)
\( \ce{[Co(NH3)4(H2O)2]Cl3} \)
\( \ce{[Co(NH3)4(H2O)2]Cl} \)
\( \ce{[Co(NH3)4(H2O)]Cl3} \)
2

What is the bond order of \( \ce{F2} \) according to molecular orbital theory?

For \( \ce{F2} \): \( (\sigma 1s)^2 (\sigma^* 1s)^2 (\sigma 2s)^2 (\sigma^* 2s)^2 (\sigma 2p_z)^2 (\pi 2p_x)^2 (\pi 2p_y)^2 (\pi^* 2p_x)^2 (\pi^* 2p_y)^2 \). Bonding = 10, antibonding = 8. Bond order = \( \frac{1}{2} (10 - 8) = 1 \).

2
1.5
0
1
4

A gaseous reaction follows \( \ce{Rate = k p_A^2} \) with \( k = 0.1 \, \ce{atm^{-1} s^{-1}} \) and \( p_A = 0.6 \, \ce{atm} \). What is the rate in \( \ce{atm s^{-1}} \)?

Rate = \( k p_A^2 = 0.1 \times (0.6)^2 = 0.1 \times 0.36 = 0.036 \).

0.018
0.072
0.054
0.036
4

In the Carius method, 0.25 g of a compound gave 0.582 g of \( \ce{AgCl} \). What is the percentage of chlorine? (Atomic masses: Ag = 108, Cl = 35.5)

Molar mass of \( \ce{AgCl} = 143.5 \) g/mol. Mass of Cl = \( \frac{35.5 \times 0.582}{143.5} = 0.144 \) g. Percentage = \( \frac{0.144 \times 100}{0.25} = 57.6\% \).

56.0%
57.0%
58.0%
57.6%
3

Which of the following compounds does not give a positive Fehling’s test?

Aldehydes reduce Fehling’s solution to form a red precipitate of \(\ce{Cu2O}\), whereas ketones do not react.

Formaldehyde
Benzaldehyde
Acetone
Acetaldehyde
3

The metallic character of elements in a group:

Down a group, atomic size increases, ionization enthalpy decreases, enhancing metallic character.

Decreases
Increases
Remains constant
First increases then decreases
2

The bond between sugar and base in a nucleotide is:

A glycosidic bond links the sugar (ribose or deoxyribose) to the nitrogenous base at C1 in nucleotides via an N-glycosidic linkage.

Glycosidic
Phosphodiester
Peptide
Ester
1

What is the common name of \( \ce{CH3CH2CH2CHO} \)?

\( \ce{CH3CH2CH2CHO} \), a four-carbon aldehyde, is commonly known as butyraldehyde.

Propionaldehyde
Butyraldehyde
Acetaldehyde
Formaldehyde
2

The enthalpy of atomization of cobalt (Co, Z = 27) is:

From the PDF, Co has an enthalpy of atomization of 425 kJ/mol, indicating strong metallic bonding.

473 kJ/mol
425 kJ/mol
515 kJ/mol
397 kJ/mol
2

Which orbital designation corresponds to quantum numbers n = 4 and l = 3?

For n = 4 and l = 3, the subshell is 4f (l = 0: s, l = 1: p, l = 2: d, l = 3: f).

4s
4p
4d
4f
4

What is the molar conductivity of 0.005 M HCl solution if its conductivity is 2.1 × 10⁻³ S cm⁻¹?

\( \Lambda_m = \frac{\kappa}{c} \times 1000 = \frac{2.1 \times 10^{-3}}{0.005} \times 1000 = 420 \, \text{S cm}^2 \text{mol}^{-1} \).

210 S cm² mol⁻¹
420 S cm² mol⁻¹
840 S cm² mol⁻¹
105 S cm² mol⁻¹
2

Which complex exhibits linkage isomerism?

\( \ce{[Co(NH3)5(SCN)]^{2+}} \) has the ambidentate ligand \( \ce{SCN^-} \), which can bind via S or N, showing linkage isomerism.

\( \ce{[Co(NH3)6]^{3+}} \)
\( \ce{[CoCl2(en)2]+} \)
\( \ce{[Co(NH3)5(SCN)]^{2+}} \)
\( \ce{[Cr(C2O4)3]^{3-}} \)
3

Which compound is formed when phenol reacts with sodium carbonate?

Phenol is a weak acid and reacts with strong bases like NaOH, but does not react with weaker bases like sodium carbonate.

Sodium phenoxide
Benzoic acid
Phenyl acetate
No reaction
4

The initial rate of a reaction is \( 1.6 \times 10^{-3} \, \ce{mol L^{-1} s^{-1}} \) when [A] = 0.4 M and [B] = 0.1 M. If the rate law is \( \ce{Rate = k[A]^2} \), what is \( k \) in \( \ce{L mol^{-1} s^{-1}} \)?

\( k = \frac{\text{Rate}}{[\ce{A}]^2} = \frac{1.6 \times 10^{-3}}{(0.4)^2} = \frac{1.6 \times 10^{-3}}{0.16} = 0.01 \).

0.005
0.02
0.01
0.04
3

Calculate the de Broglie wavelength of an electron moving at \( 2.05 \times 10^7 \, \text{m s}^{-1} \). (\( h = 6.626 \times 10^{-34} \, \text{J s} \), \( m_e = 9.1 \times 10^{-31} \, \text{kg} \))

\( \lambda = \frac{h}{mv} = \frac{6.626 \times 10^{-34}}{9.1 \times 10^{-31} \times 2.05 \times 10^7} = 3.55 \times 10^{-11} \, \text{m} \).

1.72 × 10-11 m
2.13 × 10-11 m
3.13 × 10-11 m
3.55 × 10-11 m
4

The number of periods in the modern periodic table is:

The modern periodic table has 7 periods, each corresponding to the highest principal quantum number (n=1 to 7).

6
8
5
7
4

What is the EMF of a cell with Ni(s) | Ni²⁺(0.005 M) || Ag⁺(0.001 M) | Ag(s) at 298 K, given \( E_{\text{Ni}^{2+}/\text{Ni}}^0 = -0.25 \, \text{V} \) and \( E_{\text{Ag}^{+}/\text{Ag}}^0 = 0.80 \, \text{V} \)?

\( E_{\text{cell}}^0 = 0.80 - (-0.25) = 1.05 \, \text{V} \), \( n = 2 \).

\( E_{\text{cell}} = E_{\text{cell}}^0 - \frac{0.059}{2} \log \frac{[\text{Ni}^{2+}]}{[\text{Ag}^{+}]^2} \).

\( Q = \frac{0.005}{(0.001)^2} = 5000 \), \( \log Q = 3.699 \).

\( E_{\text{cell}} = 1.05 - \frac{0.059}{2} \times 3.699 = 1.05 - 0.109 = 0.941 \, \text{V} \approx 0.94 \, \text{V} \).

0.94 V
1.16 V
0.83 V
1.05 V
1

Which of the following compounds will show tautomerism?

Alkynes with a terminal hydrogen undergo keto-enol tautomerism.

Ethyne
But-2-yne
Propyne
Benzene
3

Which hydrocarbon is formed as the major product when propyne undergoes hydroboration-oxidation?

Propyne undergoes hydroboration-oxidation to form propanal due to anti-Markovnikov addition.

Propanone
Propanol
Propanal
Propanoic acid
3

How many pi bonds are present in the \( \ce{CO2} \) molecule?

\( \ce{CO2} \) has 2 double bonds (each with 1 sigma and 1 pi), totaling 2 pi bonds.

1
3
0
2
4

Which amine is produced when \( \ce{CH3CH2CH2CH2NO2} \) is reduced with \( \ce{Sn}/HCl \)?

Reduction of 1-nitrobutane (\( \ce{CH3CH2CH2CH2NO2} \)) with \( \ce{Sn}/HCl \) yields \( \ce{CH3CH2CH2CH2NH2} \) (butan-1-amine), a primary amine, followed by neutralization.

\( \ce{CH3CH2NH2} \)
\( \ce{CH3CH2CH2NH2} \)
\( \ce{(CH3CH2CH2)2NH} \)
\( \ce{CH3CH2CH2CH2NH2} \)
4

The heat capacity of a calorimeter is 10 kJ/K. If the temperature rises from 298 K to 300 K during a reaction, what is the heat absorbed by the calorimeter?

\(q = C \Delta T\). \(C = 10 kJ/K\), \(\Delta T = 300 - 298 = 2 K\). So, \(q = 10 \times 2 = 20 kJ\).

10 kJ
30 kJ
20 kJ
5 kJ
3

Which alcohol is commonly used in antifreeze solutions?

Ethylene glycol is widely used as an antifreeze in cooling systems due to its low freezing point.

Methanol
Ethanol
Ethylene glycol
Glycerol
3

How many grams of a non-volatile solute (molar mass 180 g/mol) must be dissolved in 540 g of water to reduce its vapor pressure to 98% of its original value?

Relative lowering = \( \frac{p^0 - p}{p^0} = 1 - 0.98 = 0.02 \).

Moles of water = \( \frac{540}{18} = 30 \, \text{mol} \).

\( 0.02 = \frac{n_2}{30} \), \( n_2 = 0.6 \, \text{mol} \).

Mass = \( 0.6 \times 180 = 108 \, \text{g} \).

54 g
180 g
108 g
90 g
3

For an endothermic reaction with \(\Delta H > 0\) and \(\Delta S < 0\), under what condition is it spontaneous?

For \(\Delta H > 0\) and \(\Delta S < 0\), \(\Delta G = \Delta H - T\Delta S > 0\) always, so it is never spontaneous.

High temperature
Never spontaneous
Low temperature
Any temperature
2

Which of the following compounds is formed when \( \ce{CH3CH2NH2} \) reacts with \( \ce{(CH3)2CHCHO} \) followed by \( \ce{H2}/Ni \)?

Ethanamine reacts with 2-methylpropanal (\( \ce{(CH3)2CHCHO} \)) to form an imine, reduced by \( \ce{H2}/Ni \) to \( \ce{CH3CH2NHCH2CH(CH3)2} \) (N-(2-methylpropyl)ethanamine).

\( \ce{CH3CH2N(CH3)2} \)
\( \ce{(CH3)2CHCH2NH2} \)
\( \ce{CH3CH2NHCH2CH(CH3)2} \)
\( \ce{CH3CH2NHCH(CH3)CH2CH3} \)
3

Which complex is used in electroplating with gold?

\( \ce{[Au(CN)2]^{-}} \) is used in gold electroplating for smooth deposition, unlike the others.

\( \ce{[Ni(CO)4]} \)
\( \ce{[Co(NH3)6]^{3+}} \)
\( \ce{[Au(CN)2]^{-}} \)
\( \ce{[Fe(CN)6]^{4-}} \)
3

Which reaction is most suitable for converting an alcohol into an alkyl chloride?

Thionyl chloride (\( \ce{SOCl2} \)) is preferred because it produces pure alkyl chloride along with gaseous by-products.

Reaction with \( \ce{HCl} \)
Reaction with \( \ce{PCl5} \)
Reaction with \( \ce{SOCl2} \)
Reaction with \( \ce{ZnCl2} \)
3

The solubility product of \( \ce{MnS} \) is \( 2.5 \times 10^{-13} \). What is its solubility in water?

\( \ce{MnS(s) <=> Mn^2+ + S^2-} \), \( K_{sp} = S^2 \).

\( S^2 = 2.5 \times 10^{-13} \), \( S = \sqrt{2.5 \times 10^{-13}} \approx 5.0 \times 10^{-7} \) M.

\( 5.0 \times 10^{-7} \) M
\( 2.5 \times 10^{-13} \) M
\( 7.0 \times 10^{-7} \) M
\( 1.25 \times 10^{-6} \) M
1

Which purification technique is best suited for separating a steam-volatile, water-immiscible compound from water?

Steam distillation is ideal for compounds that are steam volatile and immiscible with water, as it vaporizes the compound below its boiling point with steam.

Crystallisation
Fractional distillation
Differential extraction
Steam distillation
4

Which of the following is an allylic halide?

Allylic halides have a halogen atom attached to an sp3 carbon adjacent to a carbon-carbon double bond.

\( \ce{CH2=CH-CH2Cl} \)
\( \ce{C6H5Cl} \)
\( \ce{CH3CH2Cl} \)
\( \ce{CH3CCl=CH2} \)
1

A first-order reaction has a rate constant of \( 0.01155 \, \ce{min^{-1}} \). What percentage of the reactant remains after 90 minutes?

\( \ln \frac{[\ce{R}]_0}{[\ce{R}]} = k t = 0.01155 \times 90 = 1.0395 \).

\( \frac{[\ce{R}]}{[\ce{R}]_0} = e^{-1.0395} = 0.3536 \approx 35\% \).

50%
25%
10%
35%
4

Botany

Which of the following statements about the detritus food chain is correct?

It begins with living plants
It does not involve decomposers
It starts with dead organic matter
It is independent of the grazing food chain
3

The detritus food chain starts with dead organic matter, which is broken down by decomposers before passing energy to consumers.

Which event marks the transition from prophase to metaphase in mitosis?

Chromosome condensation
Spindle fiber formation
Nuclear envelope breakdown
Cytokinesis
3

The complete disintegration of the nuclear envelope marks the transition from prophase to metaphase in mitosis.

Which of the following steps is NOT part of the light-dependent reactions?

Splitting of water
Oxygen evolution
Fixation of CO₂
ATP synthesis
3

CO₂ fixation occurs in the Calvin cycle, which is a light-independent reaction.

Which of the following statements about mutations is incorrect?

Mutations can be harmful, beneficial, or neutral.
Point mutations always result in frameshift mutations.
Mutations can occur spontaneously or be induced by mutagens.
Some mutations may lead to genetic disorders.
2

Point mutations do not always cause frameshift mutations; they can also be silent or missense mutations.

Which of the following is an incorrect statement about co-dominance?

Both alleles are fully expressed in heterozygous individuals.
AB blood group is an example of co-dominance.
One allele completely suppresses the other in co-dominance.
Co-dominance differs from incomplete dominance.
3

In co-dominance, both alleles contribute equally to the phenotype, instead of one suppressing the other.

Which enzyme is responsible for adding a methylated cap to eukaryotic mRNA?

Poly-A polymerase
RNA polymerase
Guanosyl transferase
DNA ligase
3

Guanosyl transferase adds a methylated cap to the 5' end of eukaryotic mRNA to enhance stability and translation.

Which type of succession occurs after a volcanic eruption?

Primary succession
Secondary succession
Tertiary succession
Climax succession
1

Primary succession occurs in areas where there was no previous life, such as a newly formed volcanic island.

Which term describes a DNA sequence that can increase transcription levels when bound by proteins?

Promoter
Silencer
Enhancer
Operator
3

An enhancer is a DNA sequence that increases transcription levels when bound by transcription factors.

Which of the following statements about the carbon cycle is incorrect?

Photosynthesis removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
Respiration releases carbon dioxide back into the atmosphere.
The burning of fossil fuels has no effect on atmospheric carbon dioxide levels.
Oceans act as carbon sinks by absorbing atmospheric CO₂.
3

Burning fossil fuels increases atmospheric CO₂ levels, contributing to global climate change.

Which of the following is incorrect about prophase I of meiosis?

It is longer than prophase of mitosis
Crossing over occurs in pachytene
Homologous chromosomes pair during zygotene
Chromosomes do not condense in prophase I
4

Chromosomes condense during prophase I of meiosis.

Which of the following statements about biodiversity hotspots is correct?

Biodiversity hotspots have high species richness and endemism.
Biodiversity hotspots have low conservation value.
Biodiversity hotspots are found only in temperate regions.
All ecosystems on Earth are biodiversity hotspots.
1

Biodiversity hotspots are regions with exceptionally high species richness and many endemic species, making them critical for conservation.

What is the role of UTRs (Untranslated Regions) in mRNA?

They encode proteins
They regulate translation and mRNA stability
They facilitate DNA replication
They bind to tRNA
2

UTRs (Untranslated Regions) do not encode proteins but regulate translation efficiency and mRNA stability.

Which plant growth regulator delays leaf senescence and promotes nutrient mobilization?

Auxin
Cytokinin
Gibberellin
Abscisic acid
2

Cytokinins delay leaf senescence by mobilizing nutrients and promoting cell division.

Which of the following is NOT involved in prokaryotic transcription?

Sigma factor
RNA polymerase
Introns
Promoter
3

Prokaryotic genes lack introns, as prokaryotic mRNA does not undergo splicing.

Which of the following is a function of the root system?

Photosynthesis
Anchorage
Transpiration
Seed dispersal
2

The root system provides anchorage to the plant by fixing it in the soil.

Which feature differentiates a pinnately compound leaf from a palmately compound leaf?

Pinnately compound leaves have leaflets arranged along a central rachis
Palmately compound leaves have a single undivided lamina
Pinnately compound leaves have leaflets attached at a common point
Palmately compound leaves have multiple veins running parallel
1

In pinnately compound leaves (e.g., neem), the leaflets are arranged along a central rachis, unlike palmately compound leaves where they arise from a common point.

Which of the following microbes is used in the bioremediation of oil spills?

Pseudomonas
Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Clostridium
Lactobacillus
1

Pseudomonas species can degrade petroleum and are used in the bioremediation of oil spills.

Which of the following is incorrect about the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)?

The SER is involved in lipid synthesis.
The SER detoxifies harmful substances.
The SER has ribosomes on its surface.
The SER plays a role in carbohydrate metabolism.
3

The smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) lacks ribosomes, distinguishing it from the rough endoplasmic reticulum.

Which of the following statements about root modifications is correct?

Pneumatophores help in gaseous exchange
Fibrous roots penetrate deep into the soil
Stilt roots are found in mustard
Taproots do not store food
1

Pneumatophores are specialized roots in mangrove plants that help in gaseous exchange in waterlogged conditions.

Which of the following is a key feature of Mycoplasma?

They have a rigid cell wall
They are the smallest living cells
They perform photosynthesis
They have a nuclear membrane
2

Mycoplasma are the smallest known living cells and are unique among bacteria as they lack a cell wall.

Which blood group is an example of both co-dominance and multiple allelism?

A
B
AB
O
3

Blood group AB is an example of co-dominance (both A and B are expressed) and multiple allelism (three alleles: IA, IB, and i).

Which ion plays a crucial role in the growth and guidance of the pollen tube?

Sodium (Na+)
Potassium (K+)
Calcium (Ca2+)
Magnesium (Mg2+)
3

Calcium ions are essential for pollen tube growth as they regulate the cytoskeletal elements and membrane fusion events.

Which of the following is a function of the poly-A tail in eukaryotic mRNA?

Initiates translation
Protects mRNA from degradation
Facilitates splicing
Activates RNA polymerase
2

The poly-A tail protects eukaryotic mRNA from degradation and aids in translation efficiency.

Which of the following statements about double fertilization is correct?

Double fertilization involves the fusion of two sperm cells with two egg cells.
Double fertilization results in the formation of a zygote and a triploid endosperm.
Double fertilization occurs in both angiosperms and gymnosperms.
Double fertilization produces two embryos in one ovule.
2

In double fertilization, one sperm cell fuses with the egg to form a diploid zygote, while the other fuses with the two polar nuclei to produce a triploid endosperm.

Which type of vacuole is responsible for osmoregulation in unicellular organisms like Amoeba?

Food vacuole
Contractile vacuole
Central vacuole
Storage vacuole
2

The contractile vacuole helps in osmoregulation by expelling excess water from the cell, maintaining internal balance.

Which of the following statements about the xylem is incorrect?

Xylem fibers provide mechanical support.
Xylem parenchyma stores food and conducts water laterally.
Xylem vessels are living at maturity.
Xylem transports water and minerals.
3

Xylem vessels are dead at maturity and function in water transport.

Which type of growth occurs due to the activity of intercalary meristem?

Primary growth
Secondary growth
Apical growth
Lateral growth
1

Intercalary meristems contribute to primary growth by elongating internodes, especially in grasses.

Which genetic disorder is caused by an expansion of CAG repeats?

Sickle-cell anemia
Huntington’s disease
Hemophilia
Cystic fibrosis
2

Huntington’s disease is caused by the expansion of CAG repeats in the HTT gene.

Which coenzyme is reduced during glycolysis and Krebs cycle?

NADP⁺
NAD⁺
Coenzyme A
FAD
2

NAD⁺ is reduced to NADH during glycolysis and the Krebs cycle, playing a crucial role in cellular respiration.

Which of the following statements about cyanobacteria is incorrect?

Cyanobacteria perform photosynthesis.
Cyanobacteria contain a well-defined nucleus.
Cyanobacteria can fix atmospheric nitrogen.
Cyanobacteria are prokaryotic organisms.
2

Cyanobacteria are prokaryotic and lack a well-defined nucleus.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic used in modern taxonomy?

Morphology
Genetic makeup
Ecological roles
Random grouping
4

Modern taxonomy is based on morphology, genetic makeup, and ecological roles. Random grouping is not a valid method of classification.

Which phase in the cell cycle follows DNA replication?

G1 phase
S phase
G2 phase
M phase
3

G2 phase follows the S phase and involves the synthesis of proteins required for mitosis.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of dicot stems?

Presence of hypodermis
Ring arrangement of vascular bundles
Scattered vascular bundles
Presence of hypodermis
3

Dicot stems have vascular bundles arranged in a ring, whereas monocot stems have scattered vascular bundles.

Which component of an operon serves as the binding site for RNA polymerase?

Operator
Promoter
Regulator
Structural gene
2

The promoter is the site where RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription in an operon.

Which pigment gives brown algae their characteristic color?

Chlorophyll a
Chlorophyll b
Fucoxanthin
Phycoerythrin
3

Fucoxanthin, a xanthophyll pigment, gives brown algae (Phaeophyceae) their characteristic color.

Which of the following is INCORRECT about ATP production?

ATP is produced in glycolysis.
The Krebs cycle does not generate ATP.
ATP synthase is involved in oxidative phosphorylation.
ATP provides energy for cellular processes.
2

The Krebs cycle does generate ATP through substrate-level phosphorylation.

Which hypothesis explains how biodiversity loss weakens ecosystems over time?

Gaia hypothesis
Rivet popper hypothesis
Island biogeography theory
Competitive exclusion principle
2

The rivet popper hypothesis suggests that biodiversity loss weakens ecosystems, similar to how losing rivets weakens an airplane.

What is the function of lenticels in woody stems?

Transport of food
Exchange of gases
Storage of water
Providing mechanical support
2

Lenticels are small openings in the bark of woody stems that facilitate gaseous exchange.

Which of the following conditions favors photorespiration in C₃ plants?

High CO₂ and low O₂ concentration
High O₂ and low CO₂ concentration
High light intensity and low temperature
Low light intensity and high humidity
2

Photorespiration occurs in C₃ plants when O₂ concentration is high and CO₂ concentration is low, leading RuBisCO to function as an oxygenase instead of a carboxylase.

Which of the following statements about biodiversity conservation is incorrect?

Ex situ conservation includes zoos and botanical gardens.
Biodiversity conservation helps maintain ecosystem balance.
Only plants are considered in conservation efforts.
In situ conservation protects species in their natural habitats.
3

Conservation efforts focus on protecting both plant and animal species, ensuring ecosystem stability and genetic diversity.

Which of the following statements about inflorescence is incorrect?

Cymose inflorescence has an acropetal flower arrangement
Umbel is a type of racemose inflorescence
Spadix is found in banana and maize
Capitulum is a type of racemose inflorescence
1

Cymose inflorescence has a basipetal arrangement, where older flowers are at the top and younger ones at the base.

Which of the following is incorrect about cilia and flagella?

Cilia and flagella are involved in cell movement.
Both cilia and flagella have a 9+2 arrangement of microtubules.
Cilia are usually longer and fewer than flagella.
Flagella are used for the movement of sperm cells in animals.
3

Cilia are usually shorter and more numerous than flagella, which are longer and fewer in number.

Which of the following is NOT an example of in situ conservation?

National parks
Wildlife sanctuaries
Zoological parks
Biosphere reserves
3

Zoological parks are an example of ex situ conservation, while national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, and biosphere reserves protect species in their natural habitats.

What is the primary function of light-harvesting complexes in photosynthesis?

Capture and transfer light energy to reaction centers
Synthesize ATP directly
Fix CO₂ into carbohydrates
Transport electrons to NADP⁺
1

Light-harvesting complexes absorb light and transfer energy to reaction centers for photosynthesis.

Which genetic concept explains why males are more likely to express X-linked recessive traits?

Dosage compensation
Hemizygosity
Polygenic inheritance
Epistasis
2

Hemizygosity explains why males (XY) express X-linked recessive traits more frequently, as they have only one X chromosome.

Zoology

Which of the following is a correct statement about oral contraceptive pills?

They work by increasing sperm production.
They prevent pregnancy by suppressing ovulation.
They permanently alter the menstrual cycle.
They provide lifelong contraception after one course.
2

Oral contraceptive pills prevent pregnancy primarily by suppressing ovulation through hormonal regulation.

Which of the following statements about Aschelminthes (Nematoda) is incorrect?

They are pseudocoelomates
They exhibit radial symmetry
They have a complete digestive system
They have a tough, non-living cuticle
2

Aschelminthes (nematodes) are bilaterally symmetrical, not radially symmetrical.

Which hormone, produced by the ovaries, inhibits FSH secretion to regulate follicular development?

Estrogen
Progesterone
Inhibin
Oxytocin
3

Inhibin, produced by granulosa cells of the ovary, specifically inhibits FSH secretion to prevent overstimulation of follicular development.

Which of the following is a feature of maternal-fetal circulation during pregnancy?

Fetal oxygenation occurs in the lungs
The placenta serves as the primary site of gas exchange
There is direct mixing of maternal and fetal blood
Fetal blood remains completely separate due to a thick placental barrier
2

In fetal circulation, the placenta is the main organ for gas exchange since the fetal lungs are non-functional until birth.

Which structure in the male reproductive system is primarily responsible for secreting the bulk of the seminal fluid?

Prostate gland
Seminal vesicles
Bulbourethral glands
Epididymis
2

The seminal vesicles contribute approximately 60-70% of the total volume of seminal fluid, which nourishes and transports sperm.

Which of the following structures is responsible for transmitting nerve impulses to the next neuron or effector organ?

Dendrites
Axon terminal
Cell body
Myelin sheath
2

The axon terminal releases neurotransmitters that transmit signals to the next neuron or effector organ.

Which of the following statements about enzymes is incorrect?

Enzymes catalyze reactions by lowering activation energy.
Enzymes are consumed in the reaction and cannot be reused.
Enzymes are highly specific to their substrates.
Enzymes can be regulated by inhibitors and activators.
2

Enzymes are not consumed in reactions; they remain unchanged and can be reused.

Which of the following is incorrect?

Natural selection leads to adaptation in populations.
Mutations always result in beneficial changes.
Fossil records provide insights into evolutionary changes over time.
Lamarck’s theory suggested the inheritance of acquired traits.
2

Mutations do not always result in beneficial changes; they can also be harmful or neutral.

Which of the following classes has members that are exclusively aquatic?

Amphibia
Reptilia
Pisces
Mammalia
3

All members of the class Pisces (fishes) are exclusively aquatic.

Which joint allows rotation of the head?

Ball and socket joint
Hinge joint
Pivot joint
Gliding joint
3

The pivot joint between the atlas and axis vertebrae allows head rotation.

Which of the following animals lacks a respiratory system and performs gas exchange through its body surface?

Frog
Cockroach
Planaria
Pila
3

Planaria, a platyhelminth, lacks a respiratory system and exchanges gases through its moist body surface.

What is the function of the hepatic portal system in frogs?

Carry oxygenated blood from the heart to the liver
Carry deoxygenated blood from the liver to the lungs
Transport blood from the intestine to the liver
Carry nutrients from the kidneys to the stomach
3

The hepatic portal system transports blood rich in nutrients from the intestine to the liver for metabolism.

Which of the following statements about neurotransmitters is correct?

Neurotransmitters can be either excitatory or inhibitory.
All neurotransmitters have only one type of effect on neurons.
Neurotransmitters pass through the postsynaptic membrane without binding to receptors.
Neurotransmitters are not required for communication between neurons.
1

Neurotransmitters can be **excitatory** (e.g., glutamate) or **inhibitory** (e.g., GABA), depending on the receptor they bind to.

What is the main nitrogenous waste product excreted by humans?

Ammonia
Uric acid
Urea
Creatinine
3

Humans are ureotelic, meaning they primarily excrete nitrogenous waste in the form of urea.

Which of the following components is essential for the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

Ligase
Taq polymerase
Restriction enzyme
Reverse transcriptase
2

Taq polymerase, derived from Thermus aquaticus, is a thermostable enzyme used in PCR to amplify DNA.

Which structure prevents friction between bones in a synovial joint?

Tendons
Ligaments
Synovial fluid
Periosteum
3

Synovial fluid lubricates synovial joints, reducing friction and allowing smooth movement.

Which species is considered the first to have exhibited bipedal locomotion?

Homo habilis
Australopithecus
Ramapithecus
Dryopithecus
2

Australopithecus is considered the first species to exhibit bipedal locomotion, a significant adaptation in human evolution.

Which of the following diseases is NOT transmitted through contaminated water?

Cholera
Typhoid
Dengue
Amoebiasis
3

Dengue is a vector-borne disease transmitted by the Aedes mosquito, not through contaminated water.

Which technique uses double-stranded RNA to silence specific genes in pests?

Gene editing
RNA interference
Somatic hybridization
Micropropagation
2

RNA interference (RNAi) uses double-stranded RNA to silence specific genes in pests, preventing their growth.

Which method is used to amplify a specific DNA segment?

Southern blotting
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
Micropropagation
Autoradiography
2

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is used to amplify specific DNA segments in vitro.

Which of the following is incorrect?

Coelacanth is considered a living fossil.
Homo erectus was the first hominid to use fire.
Genetic recombination reduces genetic variability in populations.
Mutation introduces new genetic variation into populations.
3

Genetic recombination increases, not reduces, genetic variability within populations.

Which of the following statements about plasma proteins is correct?

Albumin helps maintain blood osmotic pressure.
Globulins are not involved in immunity.
Fibrinogen plays no role in blood clotting.
Plasma proteins are mainly produced in the spleen.
1

**Albumin** maintains **osmotic pressure**, ensuring proper fluid balance between blood and tissues.

What is the function of the parathyroid hormone (PTH)?

Increases blood calcium levels
Decreases blood calcium levels
Regulates sodium levels
Stimulates insulin secretion
1

PTH increases blood calcium levels by stimulating bone resorption and calcium absorption in the intestines.

Which of the following statements about the cardiac cycle is correct?

Systole refers to heart relaxation.
Diastole refers to heart contraction.
One complete cardiac cycle lasts approximately 0.8 seconds.
The atria and ventricles contract simultaneously.
3

The duration of **one complete cardiac cycle** is about **0.8 seconds** in a healthy adult.

Which technique is based on antigen-antibody interaction for disease diagnosis?

PCR
ELISA
Northern blotting
DNA fingerprinting
2

ELISA detects the presence of antigens or antibodies in a sample through antigen-antibody interaction.

Which of the following macromolecules contains phosphodiester bonds?

Proteins
Carbohydrates
Nucleic acids
Lipids
3

Nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) contain phosphodiester bonds that link nucleotides together.

Which of the following statements about cloning vectors is correct?

Cloning vectors contain an origin of replication.
Cloning vectors cannot carry foreign DNA.
Cloning vectors cannot replicate inside host cells.
Cloning vectors must not contain selectable markers.
1

Cloning vectors must contain an origin of replication to allow independent replication inside a host cell.

Which of the following statements about the frog’s nervous system is correct?

Frogs lack a well-developed brain.
The spinal cord does not extend beyond the head.
Frogs have 10 pairs of cranial nerves.
The cerebrum is responsible for involuntary actions.
3

Frogs have 10 pairs of cranial nerves, which help in controlling sensory and motor functions.

Which of the following diseases is caused by a prion?

AIDS
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
Hepatitis
Malaria
2

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) is caused by prions, which are misfolded proteins that damage the nervous system.

Which hormone is used as a marker in clinical pregnancy tests due to its early secretion by the developing placenta?

Progesterone
Estrogen
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
3

hCG is secreted by the trophoblast soon after implantation and is the hormone detected by pregnancy tests.

Which of the following is a consequence of untreated sexually transmitted infections (STIs)?

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)
Increased fertility
Reduced risk of pregnancy
Stronger immune response
1

Untreated STIs can lead to Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID), which may cause infertility and complications in pregnancy.

Which of the following occurs during forceful expiration?

Diaphragm contracts
Intercostal muscles relax
Abdominal muscles contract
Both 2 and 3
4

During forceful expiration, intercostal muscles relax, and abdominal muscles contract to push air out of the lungs.

Which type of joint is found at the base of the thumb?

Hinge joint
Pivot joint
Saddle joint
Ball and socket joint
3

The saddle joint at the base of the thumb allows for a wide range of movement.

Which of the following statements about nucleic acids is correct?

DNA contains ribose sugar instead of deoxyribose.
RNA is usually single-stranded.
DNA and RNA both contain uracil.
DNA is composed of amino acids.
2

RNA is usually single-stranded, while DNA contains deoxyribose and thymine instead of uracil.

Which of the following steps occurs first in the process of recombinant DNA technology?

Ligation of DNA into the vector
Isolation of the gene of interest
Insertion into the host organism
Amplification of recombinant DNA
2

The first step in recombinant DNA technology is isolating the gene of interest before insertion into a vector.

Which class of drugs is derived from Cannabis sativa?

Opioids
Cannabinoids
Cocaine
Barbiturates
2

Cannabinoids are derived from the Cannabis sativa plant and affect the central nervous system.

Which immunoglobulin is the first to be produced in response to an infection?

IgA
IgG
IgM
IgE
3

IgM is the first antibody produced during an initial immune response to an infection.

Which of the following is incorrect about Golden Rice?

Golden Rice is genetically modified to produce beta-carotene.
Golden Rice helps combat vitamin A deficiency.
Golden Rice increases soil nitrogen content.
Golden Rice was developed using genetic engineering.
3

Golden Rice is genetically modified to produce beta-carotene, but it does not increase soil nitrogen content.

What type of respiration is used by amphibians like frogs in addition to pulmonary respiration?

Tracheal respiration
Cutaneous respiration
Branchial respiration
Anaerobic respiration
2

Amphibians like frogs use cutaneous respiration, where gas exchange occurs through their moist skin in addition to lungs.

Which of the following statements about coenzymes is incorrect?

Coenzymes are organic molecules that assist enzyme function.
NAD+ and FAD are examples of coenzymes.
Coenzymes are always permanently bound to enzymes.
Some vitamins function as coenzymes.
3

Coenzymes are often loosely bound to enzymes and can be reused; they are not always permanently attached.

Which hormone plays a key role in the contraction of smooth muscles, including those of the uterus?

Prolactin
Oxytocin
Thyroxine
Vasopressin
2

Oxytocin plays a key role in the contraction of smooth muscles, especially during childbirth and milk ejection.

What is the role of the renal corpuscle?

Reabsorption of glucose
Ultrafiltration of blood
Formation of concentrated urine
Secretion of ammonia
2

The renal corpuscle (Bowman’s capsule + glomerulus) is responsible for ultrafiltration of blood.

Which of the following statements about birds is correct?

They have a three-chambered heart
They are poikilothermic (cold-blooded)
They have pneumatic bones
They excrete urea as nitrogenous waste
3

Birds have pneumatic (hollow) bones, which reduce body weight and aid in flight.

Which of the following statements about gel electrophoresis is incorrect?

It separates DNA fragments based on size.
DNA fragments move toward the negative electrode.
Agarose gel is commonly used for DNA electrophoresis.
Smaller DNA fragments migrate faster than larger fragments.
2

DNA is negatively charged and moves toward the positive electrode (anode) in gel electrophoresis, not the negative electrode.

Which factor is responsible for the formation of new species through random changes in gene frequency?

Natural Selection
Mutation
Genetic Drift
Gene Flow
3

Genetic drift, especially in small populations, causes random changes in gene frequency that can lead to speciation.

Performance Summary

Subject Correct
Answers		 Incorrect
Answers		 Attempted Skipped Accuracy
Physics
Chemistry
Botany
Zoology

Overall Score

Score: / 720

Category Details
Total Attempts: / 180
Total Skipped: / 180
Total Wrong Answers:
Total Correct Answers:
Time Taken:
Average Time Taken per Question:
0
180